Tuesday, February 22, 2005

Dissertation Research Asides

So if the 10th century Arab scholar al-Masudi called the body of water between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula the "Bahr Fars," which translated literally means "Gulf of Persia," can we please consider putting this controversy to rest?

UPDATE: I probably shouldn't get too involved with something this inane, but when you think about it, the Arabs have a whole sea. Why not let Iran have a gulf? And wouldn't it be confusing to have both an "Arabian Gulf" and an "Arabian Sea?"


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